aadmember
Oct 27
428
1.11%
A 21-year-old woman presented with a 1-week history of menorrhagia, diffuse persistent abdominal and leg pain, fever, and rapidly evolving necrotic skin lesions of the face. Her medical history included antiphospholipid antibody syndrome for which she had been under chronic treatment based on rivaroxaban and a progestogenonly contraceptive pill until she had chosen to interrupt both treatments (respectively 2 weeks and 2 months earlier) in order to get pregnant. . On examination, she had retiform infiltrated necrotic maculopapular lesions of the ears, the cheeks and the right shoulder associated with livedo racemosa of the legs, arms and palms. A skin biopsy was performed. Laboratory findings included microcytic anemia (grade 4) and thrombocytopenia (grade 3). SARS-CoV-2 RT-qPCR on nasopharyngeal swabs was negative. An early thoraco-abdominal CT-scan revealed signs of colic and adrenal ischemia. . What is the most likely diagnosis? . A. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) B. Meningococcemia C. Thrombotic vasculopathy in the context of severe SARS-CoV-2 infection D. Henoch-Schonlein purpura E. Catastrophic antiphospholipid syndrome (CAPS) . Visit the link in our bio to learn the answer in the AAD's Question of the Week.
aadmember
Oct 27
428
1.11%
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